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Apr 4, 2021 at 11:53 answer added user171227 timeline score: 5
Apr 1, 2021 at 21:07 comment added Tim Campion @DenisNardin The tension between your intuition and Oscar's almost-complete answer is killing me!
Mar 30, 2021 at 8:42 answer added Oscar Randal-Williams timeline score: 9
Mar 29, 2021 at 23:24 comment added user171227 If $G$ is cyclic of prime order $p$ and with generator $g \in G$, you can invert $p(g-1) \in \pi_0(S[G])$. This process kills $S^n \wedge G/G_+$ completely and the chains of the resulting spectrum are naturally modules over $R = \mathbb{Z}[p^{-1},\zeta_p]$. For a finite spectrum $V$ the chains $C_*(V[(p(g-1))^{-1}];\mathbb{Z})$ will therefore admit a filtration where the associated graded is a direct sum of shifts of finitely generated free $R$-modules, which can presumably be ruled out in $K_0(R)$.
Mar 29, 2021 at 22:28 comment added Tim Campion Interesting, thanks! I think I'd buy that either Oscar's suggestion or user171227's suggestion would probably give something which is not finite as a Borel $G$-spectrum, but because the notion of being a projective $\mathbb Z[G]$-module is closely tied up with freeness of the $G$-action, I wonder if such constructions might nevertheless be finite as genuine $G$-spectra?
Mar 29, 2021 at 22:25 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams @Tim. Yes, that is what I mean.
Mar 29, 2021 at 22:17 comment added Tim Campion Oh -- are you saying to take $X$ to be some finitely-dominated CW complex with nonvanishing Wall obstrutction, and then to regard the universal cover $\tilde X$ as a $G$-space for $G = \pi_1(X)$, and then think that maybe $\Sigma^\infty \tilde X$ might be a finitely-dominated but not finite $G$-spectrum (which happens to be Borel)?
Mar 29, 2021 at 22:14 comment added Tim Campion @OscarRandal-Williams Now I'm more confused -- $K_0(\mathbb Z[\pi_1(X)])$ is where the Wall finiteness obstruction lives, but $\pi_1(X)$ has nothing to do with the $G$ in the question with respect to which things are equivariant. Moreover, the Wall finiteness obstruction vanishes for any 1-fold suspension space... Are you suggesting that the category of finite spectra is not idempotent complete? If so, then I think that's incorrect. If not, then how does equivariance play a role in your suggestion? Are you talking about some form of equivariant Wall finiteness obstruction?
Mar 29, 2021 at 21:49 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams @Tim Sure, not every group has nontrivial reduced projective class group, but some do, e.g. $G=\mathbb{Z}/23$.
Mar 29, 2021 at 21:17 comment added Denis Nardin I think the standard proof for spectra will work here as well (using Mackey functors valued homology) but it's too late here for me to try to write a proof :)
Mar 29, 2021 at 21:05 comment added Tim Campion @OscarRandal-Williams I'm confused -- when $G$ is trivial, I believe the answer is yes... I don't have a proof in front of me, but I think the idea is to use that any compact object in spectra must have finitely-generated homology, and to use this to construct a model of it with finitely many cells.
Mar 29, 2021 at 21:03 history edited Tim Campion CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 29, 2021 at 21:01 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams I suspect the answer is no, and you can get a counterexample from a finitely-dominated finite CW-complex with nontrivial Wall finiteness obstruction (this obstruction factors over taking stabilisation).
Mar 29, 2021 at 20:54 history edited Tim Campion CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 29, 2021 at 20:42 history asked Tim Campion CC BY-SA 4.0