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Dec 1, 2023 at 20:40 comment added Oscar Lanzi Properly, of course, $\tan^2(x)+C_1=\sec^2(x)+C_2$ for some appropriately chosen constants of integration $C_1,C_2$. Forgetting the constants in indefinite integrals is a bane of many a mathematician.
S Mar 28, 2021 at 21:51 history answered Ángel Valencia CC BY-SA 4.0
S Mar 28, 2021 at 21:51 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Ángel Valencia