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Mar 27, 2021 at 9:58 history edited GaC CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 27, 2021 at 8:56 comment added GaC Yep, exactly: you just have to assume that the derivative has (finite) one sided limits.
Mar 26, 2021 at 21:13 comment added Zach Teitler I guess this is basically the valid proof that $f'$ doesn't have removable or jump discontinuities (if you modify a little bit to use one-sided limits).
S Mar 26, 2021 at 15:15 history answered GaC CC BY-SA 4.0
S Mar 26, 2021 at 15:15 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by GaC