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Sep 15, 2010 at 12:13 comment added Dr. Pi (corrected the typo log log n, thanx !) your choice of n shows that $s(n) \gg \log \log \log n$ infinitely often. Choosing $n=\prod_{p \leq m}(p-1)$ we deduce that $s(n) \gg \log \log n$ infinitely often. But my question was of another nature : Is it true that $s(n) \to \infty$ for each sequence of integers n that have a large number of prime divisors (not for just a particular sequence of the form $m!$ or $\prod_{p \leq y}(p-1))$ ?
Sep 14, 2010 at 23:41 history answered Gerry Myerson CC BY-SA 2.5