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Mar 26, 2021 at 16:06 history edited Willie Wong
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Mar 26, 2021 at 13:54 comment added Mohamed Boucetta You are right. I fixed.
Mar 26, 2021 at 13:52 history edited Mohamed Boucetta CC BY-SA 4.0
added 1 character in body
Mar 25, 2021 at 19:54 comment added Ali Taghavi Am I mistaken to think that there is a possible confusion for 2-form $\mu$ in the second line and the initial metric $\mu$?
Mar 25, 2021 at 19:36 comment added Ali Taghavi You are well come to MO!
Mar 25, 2021 at 16:54 history edited Mohamed Boucetta CC BY-SA 4.0
added 4 characters in body
Mar 25, 2021 at 10:46 comment added Benoît Kloeckner A bit of a long shot, but have you tried to consider the map sending $f_0$ to the solution of $\Delta(f-g) = F(f_0)$, where $F$ is the right-hand side of your equation (which by the way I cannot interpret, what are those two 1-form as arguments of a function?) With a (good) bit of luck, you could have the contraction property in a suitable norm, providing existence and uniqueness of the solution.
S Mar 25, 2021 at 10:29 history suggested Dirk Werner CC BY-SA 4.0
grammar corrected
Mar 25, 2021 at 9:54 review Suggested edits
S Mar 25, 2021 at 10:29
Mar 25, 2021 at 8:33 review First posts
Mar 25, 2021 at 9:54
Mar 25, 2021 at 8:32 history asked Mohamed Boucetta CC BY-SA 4.0