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Mar 25, 2021 at 22:48 history edited Ivan Feshchenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 25, 2021 at 17:53 history edited Ivan Feshchenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 25, 2021 at 3:10 history became hot network question
Mar 25, 2021 at 0:06 comment added Ivan Feshchenko @NateEldredge Unfortunately, and this is the worst, is that I do not really understand if the function is needed here or not.
Mar 24, 2021 at 22:21 comment added Nate Eldredge I think generically, the question is as follows? You have a first-order formula $\varphi(x,y)$, with $x,y$ free, and a set $A$ (maybe $A \subset \mathbb{R}$ here), and you can prove $\forall x \in A \: \exists y \: \varphi(x,y)$. You would like to conclude there exists a function $f : A \to B$, where $B$ is some set, such that $\varphi(a, f(a))$ for all $a \in A$.
Mar 24, 2021 at 19:26 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 4
Mar 24, 2021 at 19:10 history asked Ivan Feshchenko CC BY-SA 4.0