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Mar 26, 2021 at 2:42 vote accept Frode Alfson Bjørdal
Mar 22, 2021 at 21:56 answer added Zuhair Al-Johar timeline score: 3
Mar 22, 2021 at 21:45 history edited Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2021 at 7:56 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2021 at 0:56 history edited Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 22, 2021 at 0:09 history edited Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 21, 2021 at 23:54 history edited Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 21, 2021 at 23:52 comment added Frode Alfson Bjørdal From Gandy's extract on doi.org/10.2307/2963897: "In this paper it is shown that, if a certain form of Gödel-Bernays set theory which does not include the axiom of extensionality is consistent, then so is the whole system of set theory. The general line of argument is similar to that used in Part I. § 1 describes a reformulation of set theory in which the class-existence axioms are replaced by the use of abstracts."
Mar 21, 2021 at 23:47 comment added François G. Dorais The problem with equality is correctly translating $x = \lambda z\,\phi(z)$ which is where extensionality comes into play...
Mar 21, 2021 at 23:46 comment added François G. Dorais You're right, the correct translation for $x \in \lambda z\,\phi(z)$ is $\exists y(x \in y \land \phi(z))$ since we need to ensure that $x$ is a set and not a proper class.
Mar 21, 2021 at 23:42 comment added Frode Alfson Bjørdal @FrançoisG.Dorais Gandy does have identity. It is worth noticing that one can show (use A2 p. 289 and I29 p. 290) that $x \in \lambda z\phi(z)\leftrightarrow \exists y(x \in y \land \phi(x))$. I will edit this into the question.
Mar 21, 2021 at 23:38 history edited Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0
Gandy does have identity. It is [...].
Mar 21, 2021 at 23:22 comment added François G. Dorais @JamesHanson is completely correct, but adding $\lambda$ is a definitional extension: recursively replace $x \in \lambda z\phi(z)$ by $\phi(x)$ to obtain an equivalent first-order formula for the $\in$-language. I forget exactly how Gandy approaches it, but this does not work for the language with equality but it does work if $x = y$ is interpreted in the $\in$-language as $\forall z(z \in x \leftrightarrow z \in y)$. (IIRC, this is one of Gandy's key observations.)
Mar 21, 2021 at 23:05 comment added James E Hanson First-order logic is usually not defined in a way that would allow for an operator that turns formulas into terms. This formalism can be encoded in first-order logic, but would require a larger language with a function symbol for each $\lambda$ expression.
Mar 21, 2021 at 22:34 history edited Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 21, 2021 at 22:25 history asked Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 4.0