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Sep 16, 2023 at 8:32 comment added Z. M I am not sure whether I understand correctly: the failure of this conjecture does not root out the possibility of existence of concept of "spherical" prisms $(A,I)$ such that, after base change along $\mathbb S\to\mathbb Z$, it becomes usual (animated/derived) prisms (everything $p$-completed)?
Mar 15, 2021 at 23:49 comment added Yuri Sulyma Hi Peter, thanks for this answer! Since asking this question I've gone more into equivariant homotopy theory, and recently have been thinking about connections between that and prisms. I wrote up my thoughts in a separate answer.
Mar 15, 2021 at 16:11 history edited Peter Scholze CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 15, 2021 at 15:52 comment added Jacob Lurie Every $A$-module $M$ admits a canonical $\varphi_A$-semilinear endomorphism, given by $\varphi_M = 0$.
Mar 15, 2021 at 15:36 history edited Peter Scholze CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 15, 2021 at 15:34 comment added Peter Scholze I'm not sure if this conjecture should be true, so I'd be happy about a disproof, too :-). But for this construction, $M$ needs to be a $\phi$-module over $A$. Can one still use this argument to disprove the conjecture?
Mar 15, 2021 at 14:31 comment added Jacob Lurie I don't think this conjecture can be true. Let $(A,I)$ be a perfect prism. Every free $A$-module $M$ of finite rank defines a prism $(A \oplus M, I \oplus IM)$. If you had such a functor, you could apply the "TP version" and quotient out $TP(A/I)$ to get a $TP(A/I)$-module $F(M)$, free of the same rank as $M$. Since $F$ is an additive functor this would need to come from a map associative ring spectra $A \rightarrow TP(A/I)$, which usually can't exist.
S Mar 15, 2021 at 13:23 history answered Peter Scholze CC BY-SA 4.0
S Mar 15, 2021 at 13:23 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Peter Scholze