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when toggle format what by license comment
Mar 11, 2021 at 16:43 review Close votes
Mar 15, 2021 at 7:10
Mar 11, 2021 at 16:27 comment added Piotr Hajlasz The answer is yes. Since the first order partial derivatives are in $W^{1,1}_{rm loc}$ so partial derivatives have partial derivatives i.e. second order partial derivatives exist a.e. However, the function is no not necessarily twice differentiable in the Frechet sense.
Mar 11, 2021 at 15:59 history edited Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
formatting
Mar 11, 2021 at 15:55 review First posts
Mar 11, 2021 at 16:08
Mar 11, 2021 at 15:52 history asked user798883 CC BY-SA 4.0