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Mar 5, 2021 at 21:04 history edited William Bell CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 5, 2021 at 8:16 comment added Mikael de la Salle @WilliamBell Oops, I meant $P = \begin{pmatrix} 1 &0\\0&0\end{pmatrix}$, and the conclusion is $\|P-Q\| \geq \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$. Sorry for the confusion.
Mar 5, 2021 at 0:07 history edited William Bell CC BY-SA 4.0
Counterexample
Mar 5, 2021 at 0:03 comment added William Bell Perhaps you meant something else, but I found a simple counterexample soon after this.
Mar 4, 2021 at 23:48 comment added William Bell @MikaeldelaSalle I am not sure I understand your example, isn't P a projection near P that commutes with A? (Since P is the identity in your example)
Mar 4, 2021 at 9:06 comment added LSpice TeX note: $\lvert\lvert A\rvert\rvert$ \lvert\lvert A\rvert\rvert spaces badly; prefer $\lVert A\rVert$ \lVert A\rVert. I have edited accordingly.
Mar 4, 2021 at 9:04 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
\vert\vert -> \Vert
Mar 4, 2021 at 8:44 comment added Mikael de la Salle For an explicit example, take $P=\begin{pmatrix} 1&0\\0&1\end{pmatrix}$ and $A=\begin{pmatrix} 0&\delta\\ \delta&0\end{pmatrix}$, so that $\|PQ-QP\| \geq \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ for every projection $Q$ that commutes with $A$.
Mar 4, 2021 at 8:40 comment added Mikael de la Salle If you do not impose any normalization, what you ask is even false in fixed dimension $n=2$. If you fix $A$ and $P$ that do not commute, say with $A$ of norm $<1$, then for $A'=\frac{\delta}{2} A$, you have $\|A' P - P'A\| < \delta$, but any projection that commutes with $A'$ must commute with $A$ and therefore be at distance $\geq c(A,P)$ from $P$.
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:56 vote accept William Bell
Mar 4, 2021 at 23:44
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:44 answer added Federico Poloni timeline score: 3
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:41 comment added Federico Poloni @WilliamBell No, just a scalar. $A = J + \delta e_1 e_n^T$. I went over this in my head and now I am even convinced that it works, with $P = e_1 e_1^T$. Then $\operatorname{Im} Q$ must be a real eigenvector of $A$, and the only one is at a distnace $O(\delta^{1/n})$ from $A$. Taking $n$ sufficiently large gives a counterexample. I will write it as an answer.
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:30 comment added William Bell @FedericoPoloni Thanks for the suggestions, just checking, is $A(n,1)$ a rank-1 matrix?
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:25 comment added Federico Poloni Just a hunch, but I would look for counterexamples with badly separated invariant subspaces, such as $A = \begin{bmatrix}0 & 1\\ \delta & 0\end{bmatrix}$ or larger Jordan blocks plus a perturbation in $A(n,1)$.
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:09 history edited William Bell CC BY-SA 4.0
Clarifying for a comment.
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:08 comment added William Bell @dodd I've tried to clarify a couple things with an edit, but I don't think I understand your remark.
Mar 4, 2021 at 7:00 comment added markvs What if $n=2$, $Q=\left(\begin{array}{ll}1& 0\\ 0 &0\end{array}\right)$?
Mar 4, 2021 at 5:06 history edited William Bell CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 4, 2021 at 4:56 history asked William Bell CC BY-SA 4.0