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Mar 5, 2021 at 17:30 comment added Ariyan Javanpeykar ...$Hom(X,Y) \to Y$ given by $f\mapsto f(c) $ is finite. Let me leave it at that for now.
Mar 5, 2021 at 17:29 comment added Ariyan Javanpeykar It is another theorem that Hom and Hol are the same. Indeed, in Kobayashi's book it is also shown that every holomorphic map from an algebraic variety $Y$ to a projective Brody hyperbolic variety is algebraic; see arxiv.org/abs/1806.09338 for more on this. Let me also add that the Hom-scheme you are interested in (namely, the one that parametrizes morphisms from a projective variety $X$ to a Brody hyperbolic projective variety $Y$) is in fact projective and Brody hyperbolic. See arxiv.org/abs/1807.03665 for similar statements. The idea is that the evaluation map....
Mar 2, 2021 at 14:02 comment added diverietti I didn't want to be pushy of course! It was just in case as a new user you didn't know exactly how it works here! Take your time, and feel free not to "accept" my answer of course! :)
Mar 2, 2021 at 13:59 comment added user175135 Absolutely. I just need some time to absorb it.
Mar 2, 2021 at 13:58 comment added diverietti P.S. Since you are a new user and maybe you don't know exactly how it works here, may I say that once you get an answer which is satisfactory to you, then you should click to "accept" it.
Mar 2, 2021 at 13:50 comment added diverietti Yes, I think the same.
Mar 2, 2021 at 13:50 history edited diverietti CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 2, 2021 at 13:44 comment added user175135 I meant the $\mathrm{Hom}$ functor which is representable by a scheme under the assumptions. But I think it coincides with what you wrote.
Mar 2, 2021 at 13:38 history answered diverietti CC BY-SA 4.0