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Mar 4, 2021 at 6:57 comment added Huy Le Thank you very much for your all discussions! They are very helpful to me!
Mar 3, 2021 at 14:28 comment added Emil Jeřábek Oh, I missed that the question asks about the multivariate case. But it works pretty much the same as univariate (for prime $q$): every function $(\mathbb Z/q\mathbb Z)^d\to(\mathbb Z/q\mathbb Z)$ is represented by a unique polynomial $f\in(\mathbb Z/q\mathbb Z)[t_1,\dots,t_d]$ such that $\deg_{t_i}(f)<q$ for each $i$. All other polynomials representing the same function are of the form $f+\sum_i(t_i^q-t_i)h_i(\vec t)$. For the case of $f_{t^*}$, the unique representation with $\forall i\,\deg_{t_i}<q$ is $1-\prod_i(t_i-t^*)^{q-1}$.
Mar 3, 2021 at 13:57 comment added reuns @EmilJeřábek Yes obviously, thank you, the CRT only gives a polynomial function which is a unit iff $x=1$.
Mar 3, 2021 at 13:53 comment added Emil Jeřábek @reuns Actually, it exists only if $q$ is prime or $1$: if $p\mid q$ is prime, then $f_0(0)\equiv1\pmod p$, hence $f_0(p)\equiv1\pmod p$. If $p<q$, then $f_0(p)\equiv0\pmod p$, a contradiction. Thus, $q=p$.
Mar 3, 2021 at 11:57 comment added Emil Jeřábek Since the polynomial has $q-1$ roots, it must have degree at least $q-1$ if $q$ is prime. Moreover, there is a unique polynomial of degree $q-1$ with this property, as two polynomials represent the same function on $\mathbb Z/q\mathbb Z$ iff their difference is divisible by $x^q-x$. (Thus, the Lagrange interpolation polynomial is exactly the same as what you get from Fermat’s little theorem, only written in a more complicated way.)
Mar 3, 2021 at 10:51 comment added reuns Not research level. And such a polynomial exists iff $q$ is squarefree.
Mar 3, 2021 at 7:27 history edited gmvh CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor copyediting for language, added "polynomials" tag
Mar 3, 2021 at 1:31 comment added Huy Le Thank you @DavidRoberts.
Mar 3, 2021 at 1:30 comment added Huy Le Thank you @AlexM. I have just updated the question again to be clearer.
Mar 3, 2021 at 1:28 history edited Huy Le CC BY-SA 4.0
updated the question
Mar 2, 2021 at 22:19 history reopened David Roberts
Michael Albanese
Tyrone
David C
Yemon Choi
Mar 2, 2021 at 8:50 comment added Alex M. In the polynomial function constructed with Lagrange's interpolation formula, you want to make sure that the denominator does not vanish, therefore $q$ should be required to be a prime. On the other hand, even the edited version of the question could be found off-topic, because it asks about "simpler" functions without defining what "simple" means, therefore leaving it as a matter of subjective opinion.
Mar 2, 2021 at 8:22 comment added David Roberts I see the edits, it looks like a reasonable question to me. I've voted to reopen
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:23 comment added Huy Le Hope you can see my comments because my question was closed due to it seemed to be off-topic.
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:21 comment added Huy Le The question is that is there any more polynomials that are simpler than those above. This question raised when I was trying to apply the idea at Section 4.2-4.3 of paper: iacr.org/archive/eurocrypt2014/84410298/84410298.pdf to the indicator function.
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:21 comment added Huy Le - Using Fermat's Little Theorem: The Fermat's Little Theorem states that if $q$ is a prime number, then for any integer $a$ not divisible by $q$, the number $a^{q-1}=1 ~(\bmod q)$. Then we can construct $f_{t^*}(t)=1-(t-t^*)^{q-1}~ (\bmod q)$, if $q$ is prime. This polynomial looks simpler but may still be not helpful in case $q$ is a very big integer.
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:21 comment added Huy Le - Using Lagrange Interpolation: As $t, t^* \in \mathbb{Z}_q=\{0,1, \cdots, q-1 \}$ then such a polynomial should go through the points $(0,0), (1,0), $ $\cdots, $ $(t^*-1,0), (t^*, 1), $ $(t^*+1, 0),$ $ \cdots,$ $ (q-1,0)$. We can construct $f_{t^*}(t)=\frac{t(t-1)\cdots (t-t^*+1)(t-t^*-1)\cdots (t-q+1)}{t^*(t^*-1)\cdots (t^*-t^*+1)(t^*-t^*-1)\cdots (t^*-q+1)} (\bmod q)$ via the Lagrange Interpolation method. However, the polynomial has degree of $q-1$ and looks complicated to analyze.
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:20 comment added Huy Le The (one-variable) indicator function (or characteristic function) is defined as $f_{t^*}:\mathbb{Z}_q\to \mathbb{Z}_q$ satisying that $f_{t^*}(t)=1$ if $t=t^*$ and $f_{t^*}(t)=0$, otherwise. (Here $t^*\in \mathbb{Z}_q$ is given to define the function.) More generally, in the case of multi-variable, we define $f_{t^*}:\mathbb{Z}_q^d\to \mathbb{Z}_q$, $f_{t^*}(t_1, \cdots, t_d)=1$ if $\exists t_i$ such that $t_i=t^*$ and $f_{t^*}(t_1, \cdots, t_d)=0$, otherwise. I am finding polynomials that can be used to represent these functions. So far, I have found some for the one-variable case:
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:19 comment added Huy Le @DavidRoberts, please see the updated question! Thank you very much! In case you cannot see the updated question, please see the following comments:
Mar 2, 2021 at 6:19 review Reopen votes
Mar 2, 2021 at 22:19
Mar 2, 2021 at 5:59 history edited Huy Le CC BY-SA 4.0
I modified the question to be more mathematical and clearer.
Mar 1, 2021 at 15:51 history closed Anthony Quas
abx
Tom De Medts
Emil Jeřábek
David Handelman
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Mar 1, 2021 at 7:09 history edited gmvh CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed spelling in body, fixed grammar in title
Mar 1, 2021 at 3:57 comment added David Roberts Can you give us a bit of background on how this question arose? What sort of things do you know about it already?
Mar 1, 2021 at 2:41 review Close votes
Mar 1, 2021 at 15:51
Mar 1, 2021 at 2:19 review First posts
Mar 1, 2021 at 7:40
Mar 1, 2021 at 2:11 history asked Huy Le CC BY-SA 4.0