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Feb 21, 2021 at 19:59 history became hot network question
Feb 21, 2021 at 14:39 vote accept Bogdan
Feb 21, 2021 at 14:31 answer added Jochen Glueck timeline score: 5
Feb 21, 2021 at 14:29 history edited Bogdan CC BY-SA 4.0
added 96 characters in body
Feb 21, 2021 at 14:13 comment added sharpe At least, if $p=\infty, q=1$, and $\Omega$ is a bounded Lipschitz domain, your inequality should follow from a Sobolev type inequality.
Feb 21, 2021 at 13:46 history edited Bogdan CC BY-SA 4.0
edited body
Feb 21, 2021 at 13:46 comment added Bogdan Of course. Sorry.
Feb 21, 2021 at 12:37 comment added sharpe The exponent $-N/2\times (1/p-1/q)$ should be replaced by $-N/2 \times (1/q-1/p)$?
Feb 21, 2021 at 12:23 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed title and tag
Feb 21, 2021 at 11:59 history asked Bogdan CC BY-SA 4.0