Skip to main content
11 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Feb 24, 2021 at 4:50 vote accept tudong
Feb 22, 2021 at 18:08 answer added SamJeralds timeline score: 1
Feb 20, 2021 at 0:38 comment added tudong Yes, the form invariant means $(ad x \cdot y|z)+(y,adx\cdot z)=0$.
Feb 19, 2021 at 14:52 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 4.0
added 4 characters in body
Feb 19, 2021 at 14:36 comment added LSpice The paper @tudong referenced: Kac and Peterson - Infinite flag varieties and conjugacy theorems.
Feb 19, 2021 at 14:35 comment added LSpice Calling the form invariant means $g$-invariant, in the sense that $\operatorname{ad}$ is skew-symmetric with respect to it?
Feb 19, 2021 at 14:28 history edited gmvh CC BY-SA 4.0
Improved formatting, added tags
Feb 19, 2021 at 13:58 comment added tudong Thank you for your response. The relation is correct. But I want to know the reason, since i am just a beginer in Lie algebra. The relation is just Lemma 3 in D. H. Peterson and V. G. Kac, Infinite flag varieties and conjugacy theorems, Proc, Natl. Acad. Sci, USA, Vol. 80,1983, pp. 1778-1782.
Feb 19, 2021 at 13:44 comment added Sam Sanders Can you perhaps tell us which article/book you got the equation from? And why is the explanation there not satisfactory?
Feb 19, 2021 at 13:31 review First posts
Feb 19, 2021 at 13:44
Feb 19, 2021 at 13:29 history asked tudong CC BY-SA 4.0