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Timeline for On intersection of null geodesics

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Oct 25 at 14:04 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Jan 30 at 2:33 review Close votes
Feb 5 at 3:07
Jan 30 at 2:18 comment added Willie Wong As Ettore Minguzzi pointed out in the previous comment, the set-up is ill-defined and the question unanswerable. Since the OP has not provided additional clarification, I am voting to close this question.
Jan 29 at 4:06 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Dec 30, 2023 at 3:15 answer added Anton Petrunin timeline score: 0
Feb 19, 2021 at 10:51 comment added Ettore Minguzzi The splitting is not canonical, there are many such splittings, so it seems that the transverse geodesics that you are considering are ill defined unless you introduce a privileged timelike vector field.
Feb 18, 2021 at 2:22 comment added Ali Yes, the geodesics should be transverse to the cone. I think this is all well-defined by global hyperbolicity, since spacetime has a global splitting of the form $g(t,x)= -\beta(t,x) dt^2+ g_0(t,x)$.
Feb 18, 2021 at 1:08 comment added Willie Wong In fact, I don't understand your comment at all! Given a $C^-(p)$ the only way I know where you can construct a "dual null vector" for $q\in C^-(p)$ is if you prescribe a priori a space-like foliation of $C^-(p)$, whereby there is a canonical null direction transverse to $C^-(p)$ that is orthogonal to the space-like leave through $q$. But this is not as simple as what you claimed in your comment.
Feb 18, 2021 at 1:06 comment added Willie Wong wait, I thought I understood your question, but now I am confused. Are $\gamma_{q_1}$ and $\gamma_{q_2}$ supposed to be transverse to $C^-(p)$ or not? The way the question text itself is written, I would've interpreted $\gamma_{q_1}$ as the null geodesic joining $p$ to $q_1$. But your comment suggest something else.
Feb 18, 2021 at 0:46 comment added Ali I should clarify that of course. Here, due to splitting of spacetime, you can always associate to a null vector $v=c\partial_t+\nu$ a canonical dual null vector $\tilde{v}=-c\partial_t+\nu$. The vector $\tilde{v}$ is what I mean by the (pseudo)-normal.
Feb 17, 2021 at 18:52 history asked Ali CC BY-SA 4.0