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Feb 10, 2021 at 23:37 history edited Martin Väth CC BY-SA 4.0
Replaced boundedness hypothesis by a-priori bound.
Feb 10, 2021 at 23:30 history edited Martin Väth CC BY-SA 4.0
Replaced boundedness hypothesis by a-priori bound.
Feb 10, 2021 at 23:28 comment added Martin Väth I edited the reply to require an a-priori bound. This is usual technique needed to prove the existence of a solution in such cases. Without any such a-priori bound, I doubt that it is possible to apply Brouwer's fixed point theorem directly for the problem.
Feb 10, 2021 at 23:25 history edited Martin Väth CC BY-SA 4.0
Replaced boundedness hypothesis by a-priori bound.
Feb 10, 2021 at 22:44 comment added Guy Fsone Note that $\phi_k's\in L^\infty$ and thus $v_k\in L^\infty$ because $v_k\in \mathcal V_k$ that is why we have that $\zeta(v_k)v_k$ is bounded by assumption.
Feb 10, 2021 at 22:42 comment added Martin Väth If $u\mapsto\zeta(u)u$ is (globally) bounded, then $F$ (and thus $G$) is globally bounded, that is, there is some $R$ such that $\lVert G(v)\rVert\le R$ for every $v$. As mentioned in the previous comment, instead of the boundedness, sublinear growth near $\infty$ is suffiicient.
Feb 10, 2021 at 22:40 comment added Guy Fsone How to you get that the range of G is in a ball? I tough we have to find $G$ and $R>0$ such that $\|v\|\leq R\implies \|G(v)\|\leq R$? This would solve the problem.
Feb 10, 2021 at 22:38 comment added Martin Väth I know, but I guess that some assumption was forgotten, because it was used in the question e.g. that $\zeta(v_k)v_k$ is bounded. Moreover, I am quite sure that the assertion is not provable from the finite-dimensional reduction if practically nothing more than the continuity of $u\mapsto z(u)u$ is assumed - local boundedness of the derivative is practically an empty hypothesis concerning Brouwer. It is sufficient that $\frac{\lVert F(u)\rVert}{\lVert u\rVert}\to0$ as $\rVert u\rVert\to\infty$, though. This is a bit weaker than global boundedness.
Feb 10, 2021 at 22:25 comment added Guy Fsone The assumption says the derivative of $\zeta(t)t$ is locally bounded and not the function itself. But yes this assumption implies the local boundedness $\zeta(t)t$.
Feb 10, 2021 at 22:22 history answered Martin Väth CC BY-SA 4.0