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Feb 9, 2021 at 7:24 vote accept math110
Feb 7, 2021 at 1:35 history edited Noam D. Elkies CC BY-SA 4.0
Add self-contained argument that $f(p)$ vanishes at integral $p=0,1,\ldots,n-2$.
Feb 6, 2021 at 20:20 history edited Noam D. Elkies CC BY-SA 4.0
correct typo: $p \leq 0$ (not $p \geq 0$) for $n=5$
Feb 6, 2021 at 17:27 history answered Noam D. Elkies CC BY-SA 4.0