The convention that $\sin^2 x = (\sin x)^2$, while in general $f^2(x) = f(f(x))$, is often called illogical, but it does not lead to conflicts because nobody uses $\sin(\sin x))$$\sin(\sin x)$.
But is this really true? Or is there a real-world application in which $\sin(\sin x))$$\sin(\sin x)$ occurs? Or maybe something a bit more general, like $\sin(C \sin x)$ for some constant $C \neq 0$?