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Jan 29, 2021 at 10:14 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu @Theone I'm glad it helped. I like that book myself.
Jan 29, 2021 at 3:04 comment added Theone @LiviuNicolaescu, Thanks for the reference, too! That made everything very clear. It's also a very nicely written book. If you want to put this into an answer, I would approve it.
Jan 29, 2021 at 2:57 comment added Theone @BertramArnold Thanks for the reference! I hadn't heard of supermanifolds before, but I'll take a look at them!
Jan 28, 2021 at 15:01 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu The Stokes's theorem for pseudoforms in proved in T. Frankel's book The Geometry of Physics, 3rd Edition, 2012, page 117.
Jan 28, 2021 at 10:46 comment added David Roberts @BertramArnold that looks like good material for an answer!
Jan 28, 2021 at 10:31 comment added Bertram Arnold While this fuss about orientations might seem pedantic, for more general objects such as supermanifolds there are no longer any "top-forms", and the pseudo-differential forms you define correspond to "integral forms", which are fundamentally different from differential forms (e.g. they don't form an algebra). Witten's paper "Notes on Supermanifolds and Integration" (arxiv.org/abs/1209.2199) explains this quite well, Section 3.5 about Stokes's theorem is especially relevant.
Jan 28, 2021 at 10:28 comment added Bertram Arnold Any pseudo-differential $k$-form defines a $(n-k)$-de Rham current, i.e. a linear functional on compactly supported $(n-k)$-forms, and thus corresponds more to a dimension $(n-k)$ homology rather than a degree $k$ cohomology class. In particular, pulling it back to a general submanifold requires the normal bundle to be oriented. This is true for the boundary (take the inward or outward pointing normal vector field; the choice will cancel out) but not in general. Since Stokes's theorem can be proved in local orientable charts, the same proof works for pseudo-differential forms.
Jan 28, 2021 at 9:27 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 28, 2021 at 6:36 comment added Theone That's a fair question. The integral is just a real number. For the second part of your comment: maybe it all comes down to whether you can pull back a section of a differential pseudo-form. I don't know if it's possible either...
Jan 28, 2021 at 6:30 comment added David Roberts No, I meant: given a pseudodifferential form, is its integral a number or something more exotic? A section of $\Psi$ wasn't the right thing to suggest here. Also, to even do the integration over $\partial M$, you need to be pulling back of $\omega$ along the inclusion of the boundary, so this has to make sense...
Jan 28, 2021 at 6:08 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Typo fixed.
Jan 28, 2021 at 6:08 comment added Theone The integral of a section of $\Psi$ (as far as I know) is only defined over $M$, or over subset of $M$. In this case, the intergral is a real number. That is an interesting point about restricting $\Psi$ to the boundary. But, does the restriction of the pseudoscalar bundle to the boundary canonically give the pseudoscalar bundle of the boundary? If not, I don't see how you can integrate a $(n-1)$-form on $\partial M$ and get a real number answer.
Jan 28, 2021 at 5:41 comment added David Roberts Presumably the integral is a section of $\Psi$ rather than a real-valued function? If so, one would need a map of bundles between the pseudoscalar bundle of the boundary, and the restriction of the pseudoscalar bundle of $M$ to the boundary, in order to compare the sections.
Jan 28, 2021 at 5:36 review First posts
Jan 28, 2021 at 7:33
Jan 28, 2021 at 5:32 history asked Theone CC BY-SA 4.0