Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jan 19, 2021 at 14:36 vote accept Timothy Chow
Jan 19, 2021 at 9:59 comment added Monroe Eskew I think the way the question is framed is a bit misleading. There is not just one “meaning” of generic that is close to comeagerness. “Generic” has only a technical meaning in terms of a partial order and a collection of dense subsets of it. It can correspond to comeagerness, or Lebesgue measure one, or these notions relativized to some other topology or measure, or “measure one” for some other ideal like the Marczewski ideal, or generic with respect to ideals on higher Baire space, or a generic closed subset of a stationary set, etc. etc.
Jan 19, 2021 at 7:01 history became hot network question
Jan 19, 2021 at 6:24 comment added Anthony Quas Hmmm so I'm not sure about the set-theoretic independence part, but in case it's relevant, the set $A=\{x\in[0,1]\colon \exists \text{infinitely many }p,q\text{ such that }|x-\frac pq|<\frac{1}{q^3}\}$ is an easily understandable residual set of measure 0.
Jan 19, 2021 at 5:40 comment added Timothy Chow @AnthonyQuas : Yes, I mean set-theoretic independence.
Jan 19, 2021 at 5:25 comment added Anthony Quas Sorry to be dumb here, but what do you mean by an independence result? Are we talking about set-theoretic independence here?
Jan 19, 2021 at 2:23 answer added Andreas Blass timeline score: 10
Jan 18, 2021 at 23:59 answer added Buzz timeline score: 1
Jan 18, 2021 at 23:12 comment added Asaf Karagila Take a meager co-null set (e.g. the union of fat Cantor sets with measures approaching to $1$), then adding a Cohen real would avoid this set. Now take some "natural description of a Cohen real" and make that into your wanted example.
Jan 18, 2021 at 23:01 history asked Timothy Chow CC BY-SA 4.0