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Timeline for Conditions equivalent to finiteness

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Feb 13, 2021 at 14:37 answer added Tim Campion timeline score: 3
Feb 13, 2021 at 14:05 comment added Alec Rhea @TimCampion Most certainly, let one thousand flowers bloom. I just saw an opportunity to nitpick and had to take it ;).
Feb 13, 2021 at 14:01 comment added Tim Campion ... a "set" really is nothing more than an object of the category of sets; the axioms tell us something about what this sort of "set" is in just the same way that the axioms of ZFC tell us something about what its sort of "set" is. In Mike Shulman's terminology, there are "material set" theories like ZFC and "structural set" theories like ETCS. Both are adequate to support most of the ways that sets are used outside of pure set theory, so it's not unreasonable for mathematicians to differ on which sort of "set" is the default meaning for them.
Feb 13, 2021 at 14:01 comment added Tim Campion @AlecRhea That's fair. I'm reminded of the discussion in the comments here the other day, although that was over a slightly different question -- I agree that although ZFC doesn't "define" what a set is, the rules it gives for reasoning about them "say something" about about what a set is. Note, though, that in some foundational approaches, e.g. in ETCS-based approaches,...
Feb 13, 2021 at 13:49 comment added Alec Rhea @TimCampion I’m interested in any notion that matches our intuition of the finite. I do have a philosophical nitpick with the phrasing of your question; I don’t view sets as ‘the objects of the category of sets’ because the definition of that category doesn’t actually tell me anything about what a set is, at least not in the sense that the axioms of some set theory would. Indeed, ‘the category of sets’ changes depending on what set theoretical axioms are in the universe — in NF, for example, the category of sets is not Cartesian closed.
Feb 13, 2021 at 12:58 comment added Tim Campion I think you're talking about finiteness of sets. Are you also interested in finiteness in other categories?
Jan 19, 2021 at 10:42 answer added Hanul Jeon timeline score: 5
Jan 18, 2021 at 19:19 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 5
Jan 18, 2021 at 19:13 history edited gmvh
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Jan 18, 2021 at 16:34 history became hot network question
Jan 18, 2021 at 13:56 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Todd Trimble
Jan 18, 2021 at 10:16 history edited Alec Rhea CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed error pointed out by abx
Jan 18, 2021 at 10:16 comment added Alec Rhea @abx Total brain fart, thanks for the catch.
Jan 18, 2021 at 9:43 comment added abx If we have the same definition for the characteristic of a field, 2. is definititely false.
Jan 18, 2021 at 9:32 answer added YCor timeline score: 5
Jan 18, 2021 at 9:19 answer added Qiaochu Yuan timeline score: 4
Jan 18, 2021 at 9:16 answer added YCor timeline score: 5
Jan 18, 2021 at 9:13 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
formatting
Jan 18, 2021 at 8:41 history edited Alec Rhea CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18, 2021 at 8:41 comment added Alec Rhea @NoahSchweber Thank you for the correction.
Jan 18, 2021 at 8:41 comment added Noah Schweber 4 should say "countably infinite subsets" - trivially, a set is finite iff it has no infinite subsets.
Jan 18, 2021 at 8:39 history edited Alec Rhea CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18, 2021 at 8:34 history asked Alec Rhea CC BY-SA 4.0