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Feb 1, 2021 at 4:36 history edited Geor11 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18, 2021 at 13:42 comment added Geor11 Thanks, I should have mentioned it. We say a map is separable when there is a separable (in the topological meaning), measurable set $A$ with probability 1. That is, $P(X \in A) = 1$. It may work in somewhere, but I have no idea.
Jan 18, 2021 at 10:01 comment added Fedor Petrov What is a separable map and where does it act to?
Jan 18, 2021 at 4:31 history edited bof CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 18, 2021 at 3:12 comment added Geor11 Thank you for your comment, Dieter. I added some definitions and made notations clearer.
Jan 18, 2021 at 3:10 history edited Geor11 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 17, 2021 at 14:01 comment added Dieter Kadelka I think before you can get an answer to your question you should go into some details. First in (ii) you have to replace $X_n$ by $(X_n)$, I think. Then you should explain what is meant by almost sure convergence of not necessarily measurable functions (I think it has to do with the probability measure space $(\Omega,\mathcal{A},\mathbb{P})$ (inner probability measure $\mathbb{P}^*$?). Since the terminology seems to be not known generally, such elaborations are important. Otherwise you reach only specialists.
Jan 17, 2021 at 1:42 review First posts
Jan 17, 2021 at 21:01
Jan 17, 2021 at 1:39 history asked Geor11 CC BY-SA 4.0