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Jan 20, 2021 at 15:01 comment added Ralle @BenjaminSteinberg Sorry, I withdraw my question!
Jan 18, 2021 at 15:28 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @Ralle, this doesn't seem a groupoid to me.
Jan 18, 2021 at 15:25 comment added Ralle @BenjaminSteinberg What I meant is that one takes a free group and declares some products in this group as not defined (in such a way that one gets a groupoid). More formally: Let $G$ be a free group with composition $\circ$. Let $S$ be a subset of $G\times G$ containing all pairs $(g,g^{-1})$ where $g\in G$. Let $\ast$ be the restriction of $\circ$ to $S$. Then $(G,^{-1},\ast)$ is a groupoid .
Jan 18, 2021 at 14:55 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @Ralle, then what do you mean by forbidding some products? Anyway groupoid algebras are direct sums of matrix algebras over groups and so will always have non-trivial idempotents unless they are groups.
Jan 18, 2021 at 14:52 comment added Ralle @BenjaminSteinberg I am using the algebraic definition from en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Groupoid.
Jan 18, 2021 at 14:48 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @Ralle, What do you mean by groupoid? To me that means a category where all morphisms are invertible.
Jan 18, 2021 at 14:38 comment added Ralle @BenjaminSteinberg What if one replaces the free group $G$ by a groupoid obtained from a free group by "forbidding" some products? Can the groupoid algebra have nontrivial idempotents?
Jan 17, 2021 at 19:38 comment added Ralle Thank you all for your answers!
Jan 16, 2021 at 22:05 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
removed unnecessary emphatic word
Jan 16, 2021 at 20:34 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Look at Higman's paper. It is on page 242. He does an extremely similar argument. He doesn't quite push into laurent polynomials. He uses the indexing function to imitate the proof for Laurent polynomials
Jan 16, 2021 at 20:05 comment added YCor @BenjaminSteinberg I'm also not sure what you mean by obvious modification, as the homomorphism from the group generated by $\mathrm{Supp}(u)\cup\mathrm{Supp}(v)$ onto $\mathbf{Z}$ might kill $\mathrm{Supp}(v)$.
Jan 16, 2021 at 19:50 comment added Fedor Petrov @BenjaminSteinberg what is the obvious modification for zero divisors? If $uv=0$, we may suppose that the supports of $u$ and $v$ generate $G$, then there exists a homomorphism $G\to \mathbb{Z}$ which is non-zero either on $u$ or on $v$, but why on both?
Jan 16, 2021 at 19:43 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Yes this is Higman's proof except he does the obvious modification for zero divisors. I had thought he had used ordering but I guess not
Jan 16, 2021 at 18:52 comment added YCor @FedorPetrov typo is fixed, thanks
Jan 16, 2021 at 18:51 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
added 9 characters in body
Jan 16, 2021 at 18:47 comment added Fedor Petrov Your "no zero divisor" should read as "no non-trivial idempotent", or the proof must be modified.
Jan 16, 2021 at 18:26 history answered YCor CC BY-SA 4.0