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Jan 5, 2016 at 5:37 comment added LSpice I just needed to cite this result in a paper, and literally thought "I know that this result must be somewhere in Bourbaki, but don't want to go hunting; let me Google MO instead, and hope that someone has already done the hunting for me." Thank you for being that one!
Jul 24, 2011 at 6:28 comment added Harry Altman Quick note: This argument seems to also work for ordered fields as well as valued fields. No idea about other fields.
Sep 9, 2010 at 17:26 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 8, 2010 at 11:11 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard Thanks! I can't really say I KNOW the notion of uniform space. I just knew such a notion existed, I thought (apparently correctly) that it was due to Weil, and I knew it played an important role in several Bourbaki's books... It's one of the many things I'm planning to learn sometime...
Sep 8, 2010 at 10:52 comment added user5810 Yeah, I haven't been able to come up with one either. I just thought it was possible you didn't know how a complete field would be defined without an absolute value.
Sep 8, 2010 at 10:18 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard Thank you! Do you mean Example 3 in en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_space#Examples ? I don't see there an example of complete topological field whose topology is not given by an absolute value.
Sep 8, 2010 at 9:46 comment added user5810 Your answer is still more general (and so better) than Robin's. [If you don't know what another kind of complete field would be, see Definition, Completeness, and Example 3 at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_space ]
Sep 8, 2010 at 9:01 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard I'm afraid I misunderstood your question. I took it for granted that you considered only fields complete with respect to a nontrivial absolute value. Sorry. [I know nothing about other kinds of complete fields.]
Sep 8, 2010 at 8:30 comment added user5810 How do you show that every complete field has an absolute value that induces its topology?
Sep 8, 2010 at 7:32 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard You asked if a finite dimensional space F in a Hausdorff topological vector space over a complete field is always closed. The result I prove (following Bourbaki) shows that F (equipped with the induced topology) is complete, and thus closed.
Sep 8, 2010 at 7:11 comment added user5810 Umm, I wouldn't have known how to prove this result, but I don't see how it addresses my question, either.
Sep 8, 2010 at 4:21 history answered Pierre-Yves Gaillard CC BY-SA 2.5