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Jun 1, 2020 at 8:23 comment added Surojit Ghosh @TomGoodwillie: Consider the localizations maps $X \to P^n X$, $Y \to P^n Y$ and $X \wedge Y \to P^n(X \wedge Y )$. Then can we have a map from $P^n(X) \wedge P^n(Y) \to P^n(X \wedge Y)?$ Here $P^n$ is the Postnikov section.
Sep 7, 2010 at 19:40 vote accept Eric Finster
Sep 7, 2010 at 19:39 comment added Eric Finster Yes, I somehow figured that a set formula was too much to ask for. But thanks for the tips. I will try these in my situation and see if I can get anything to fall out.
Sep 7, 2010 at 19:36 history answered Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 2.5