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Jan 11, 2021 at 8:41 history edited Daniel Castro
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Dec 31, 2020 at 12:37 vote accept Daniel Castro
Dec 31, 2020 at 11:12 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 2
Dec 29, 2020 at 23:57 comment added Alexandre Eremenko $\|\mu\|_\infty=1$ implies that $w$ is everywhere degenerate, $J_w\equiv 0$.
Dec 29, 2020 at 21:45 comment added Moishe Kohan Your equation might have a solution but it will not be quasiconformal (I think, its image will be a curve). For quasiconformality you need a Beltrami differential $\mu$ satisfying $||\mu||_\infty<1$.
Dec 29, 2020 at 18:51 review First posts
Dec 29, 2020 at 18:53
Dec 29, 2020 at 18:45 history asked Daniel Castro CC BY-SA 4.0