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Dec 28, 2020 at 15:09 history edited T. Amdeberhan CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 27, 2020 at 16:42 comment added darij grinberg Yes, it is. See Exercise 1 (c) in my UMN Fall 2017 Math 4990 homework set #6. The proof is a simple application of the absorption formula $m \dbinom{n}{m} = n \dbinom{n-1}{m-1}$. If I am not mistaken, it is easy to make this a bijective proof.
Dec 27, 2020 at 16:17 history asked T. Amdeberhan CC BY-SA 4.0