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Dec 28, 2020 at 1:16 answer added John Jiang timeline score: 1
Dec 27, 2020 at 20:40 comment added John Jiang @Suvrit, yes your hunch is correct. This is already known, in fact proved by my coauthor in the linked paper above already (but in slight disguise)! See Theorem IV.5 of arxiv.org/pdf/1809.04052.pdf
Dec 27, 2020 at 20:15 comment added Suvrit I feel the answer to your question should be simple, but am out of time rn to think; you may find the link interesting: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… --- also, actually the Jaccard distance wikipedia page states an upper bound of the form 2J/(1+J), so I feel this type of bound should be kinda known.
Dec 27, 2020 at 19:19 comment added John Jiang @Suvrit thanks for the reference! I don't see immediately how to apply the transform but it brings up an interesting question what's the inverse image of the probability Jaccard distance under the transform.
Dec 27, 2020 at 2:05 comment added Suvrit Maybe you find the Steinhaus transform based definition of Jaccard helpful for proving the bound because the upper bound you've stated looks like that transform! mathoverflow.net/questions/18084/…
Dec 26, 2020 at 20:24 history edited John Jiang CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2020 at 20:13 history edited John Jiang CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2020 at 20:08 history asked John Jiang CC BY-SA 4.0