Timeline for What is the Implicit Function Theorem good for?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
5 events
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| Mar 17 at 13:18 | comment | added | The Amplitwist |
The link to math.ucsd.edu in the previous comment seems to be broken, but a snapshot is saved on the Wayback Machine.
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| Oct 15, 2013 at 5:20 | comment | added | user41263 | Just as a curiosity, here's an IFT argument about harmonic maps of the standard n-sphere near the identity that Peng Lu and I wrote up for a section in RF Part IV: math.ucsd.edu/~benchow/IFT-HarmonicMapsNearIdentitySn.pdf I assume it is a folklore result and I would like to know if any one has a reference for this. | |
| Mar 17, 2012 at 9:25 | comment | added | alvarezpaiva | In fact, if you set up everything the right way as Nijenhuis does in Strong Derivatives and Inverse Mappings Albert Nijenhuis The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 81, No. 9 (Nov., 1974), pp. 969-980 the inverse function theorem is equivalent to the standard Picard's existence theorem in ODE's (with Lipschiz condition). | |
| Sep 12, 2010 at 4:56 | vote | accept | jlk | ||
| Sep 7, 2010 at 3:42 | history | answered | Deane Yang | CC BY-SA 2.5 |