Skip to main content
clarified title (f^(m) sounds like $m$-fold derivation)
Link
YCor
  • 63.9k
  • 5
  • 187
  • 286

$m$-fold composite $p^{(m)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ implies $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$

edited tags
Link
Joe Silverman
  • 47.4k
  • 2
  • 149
  • 241
Source Link
jack
  • 3.2k
  • 14
  • 25

$p^{(m)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ implies $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$

Let $p(x)$ be a polynomial, $p(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$, and $p^{(m+1)}(x)=p(p^{(m)}(x))$ for any positive integer $m$.
If $p^{(2)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ it's not possible to say that $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$.
Is it possible to conclude that $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ if $p^{(2)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $p^{(3)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$?

More general, suppose there exist positive integers $k_1 <k_2$, such that $p^{(k_1)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $p^{(k_2)}(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$. Does it follow that $p(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$?