Skip to main content
11 events
when toggle format what by license comment
S Dec 22, 2020 at 15:21 history bounty ended David Loeffler
S Dec 22, 2020 at 15:21 history notice removed David Loeffler
Dec 22, 2020 at 15:21 vote accept David Loeffler
Dec 22, 2020 at 12:48 answer added user171030 timeline score: 5
Dec 22, 2020 at 10:47 comment added Paul Broussous Did you ask Nadir Matringe ? ([email protected])
Dec 18, 2020 at 12:52 comment added David Loeffler Yes, I'm sure it's non-zero, because one can construct a canonical element of this space using the Asai zeta integral. Over a finite field the reps are all semisimple, so the exact seq is obviously exact on the right; however smooth reps over local fields are not semisimple in general, so the sequence continues into a long exact sequence of Ext groups, and the content of my question is whether or not the map $Hom_{GL_2(F)}(\pi, \mathrm{St}) \to Ext^1_{GL_2(F)}(\pi, \mathbb{C})$ is non-zero.
Dec 18, 2020 at 11:07 comment added Dror Speiser If $E/F$ is a finite field extension (not characteristic 2) and $\pi$ is a generic, principal, non-Steinberg representation, that is not the normalised induction of a pair of characters of $E^\times$ which are distinct, and both trivial on $F^\times$, then I think that $(\pi, 1)_{B(F)}=0$. Are you sure that over local fields the hom-space is at least one dimensional? And if $\pi$ is the normalised induction ... then $(\pi, 1)_{B(F)}=2$, so I would guess that over local fields too $dim\ Hom=2$.
S Dec 18, 2020 at 8:24 history bounty started David Loeffler
S Dec 18, 2020 at 8:24 history notice added David Loeffler Draw attention
Dec 16, 2020 at 13:49 history edited David Loeffler CC BY-SA 4.0
added 54 characters in body
Dec 15, 2020 at 23:21 history asked David Loeffler CC BY-SA 4.0