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Jan 14, 2021 at 12:04 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Dec 15, 2020 at 11:02 answer added Jochen Wengenroth timeline score: 1
Dec 14, 2020 at 19:33 comment added Yemon Choi [deleted a comment which was based on a mis-reading]
Dec 14, 2020 at 17:50 comment added Ali Taghavi The holomorpgic case works well. If a sequence of holomorphic maps is locally uniformly convergence then its derivative converges too. So the real case of this situation occures in power serises. Every convergence real power series has convergence (higher order) derivative.
Dec 14, 2020 at 17:49 history edited potionowner CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 14, 2020 at 17:46 comment added Yemon Choi Secondly: if $f_n'\to f'$ uniformly then it follows from the Fundamental theorem of calculus and basic estimates that $f_n \to f$ uniformly
Dec 14, 2020 at 17:46 comment added Yemon Choi Firstly, I think there is a typo: you presumably mean that $f_n' \to f'$
Dec 14, 2020 at 17:41 history asked potionowner CC BY-SA 4.0