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Dec 8, 2020 at 14:32 comment added Iosif Pinelis Also, where does this problem arise?
Dec 8, 2020 at 14:25 comment added Iosif Pinelis You wrote: "The vector $v$ is invariant by the transformation $x_i \mapsto x_{n-i+1}$." This is not true. Also, the vector $v$ would be "more palindromic" if $x_1/x_2$ were replaced by $x_2/x_1$ -- which way is it really? Also, for $x_i = \frac1{i(n-i+1)}$, we have $\|v\|_\infty>2$.Clearly, the optimal $n$-tuple $x$ must be strictly concave.
Dec 8, 2020 at 4:51 history asked user70925 CC BY-SA 4.0