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Dec 4, 2020 at 16:25 comment added G. Panel Can you give a hint for exhibiting such a counter example please? (still considering that the $\mathcal{C}^1$ speed field is non-vanishing on a compact)
Dec 4, 2020 at 6:32 comment added D. Thomine No, it doesn't (e.g. you can have mutually singular invariant measures with full support). You basically get uniform convergence only in the case where the system has a unique invariant probability measure (unique ergodicity), but that's a pretty specific property.
Dec 3, 2020 at 22:52 comment added G. Panel If $\mu$ is invariant with support $\text{supp}(\mu)$ and $v$ is still nowhere vanishing, does this convergence happen uniformly toward the choice of $x_0\in\text{supp}(\mu)$?
Dec 3, 2020 at 22:44 history edited G. Panel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 3, 2020 at 17:26 history edited G. Panel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 3, 2020 at 17:00 comment added Christian Remling In any event, the convergence is not uniform in $x_0$. Consider for example a 1D system on $K=[0,1]$, with $v(0)=v(1)=0$ and $v>0$ otherwise. So you move from $x=0$ to $x=1$, and $\mu=\delta_1$, but this will take very long if you start close to $0$. (If you want an example with $v\not=0$, you can make this two-dimensional and approach periodic orbits instead of points.)
Dec 3, 2020 at 16:57 comment added Christian Remling This is not what the usual ergodic theorem says. Rather, there is a fixed measure $\mu$ (independent of $x_0$), and you have convergence for almost all $x_0$. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ergodic_theory#Ergodic_theorems
Dec 2, 2020 at 22:16 history asked G. Panel CC BY-SA 4.0