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Nov 27, 2020 at 20:38 vote accept Artemy
Nov 25, 2020 at 20:48 answer added Dave L Renfro timeline score: 2
Nov 25, 2020 at 16:21 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 5
Nov 25, 2020 at 6:25 comment added Artemy Yes, apologies, I used that notation because my function vanished in the appropriate ways. I now wrote it more directly in terms of one-sided derivatives.
Nov 25, 2020 at 6:24 history edited Artemy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 25, 2020 at 5:45 comment added LSpice Presumably you mean to assume at least that $f(0, 0) = 0$, and probably even that $f$ vanishes on both axes?
Nov 25, 2020 at 4:41 history asked Artemy CC BY-SA 4.0