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Oct 2, 2010 at 10:10 vote accept Dan Petersen
Sep 27, 2010 at 16:22 answer added Torsten Ekedahl timeline score: 15
Sep 9, 2010 at 7:41 comment added Qing Liu In positive characteristic $p$, if you take two supersingular elliptic curves $E_1, E_2$, then $E_i\times E_j$ is isomorphic to $E_1^2$ for any pair $i,j$, so $([E_1]-[E_2])^2=0$. But it is unclear for me why should $[E_1]=[E_2]$.
Sep 4, 2010 at 16:49 history asked Dan Petersen CC BY-SA 2.5