Skip to main content

Timeline for On the Fourier inversion formula

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 23, 2020 at 6:28 vote accept ABB
Nov 20, 2020 at 15:12 history became hot network question
Nov 20, 2020 at 15:04 comment added Christian Remling As already indicated in the answers, I think you need to clarify what you mean by "converges" here. Normally, in the context of the Lebesgue integral, one would understand this to mean that $\widehat{f}e^{2\pi i\xi x}\in L^1$, which is of course the same as $\widehat{f}\in L^1$, and then the statement becomes just the usual Fourier inversion theorem.
Nov 20, 2020 at 12:06 answer added Piero D'Ancona timeline score: 3
Nov 20, 2020 at 8:24 answer added Mateusz Kwaśnicki timeline score: 9
Nov 20, 2020 at 7:05 history asked ABB CC BY-SA 4.0