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Nov 11, 2020 at 13:10 comment added ABIM Oh, ya its on purpouse but for my purpouse it didn't matter. I can equally well-take the $\sigma^2$ convention.
Nov 11, 2020 at 13:04 comment added wlad The usual convention is that the normal distribution is parametrised as $N(0, \sigma^2)$ where $\sigma$ is the standard deviation. You're using $\sigma$ instead of $\sigma^2$. Is this on purpose?
Nov 11, 2020 at 12:23 vote accept ABIM
Nov 11, 2020 at 12:03 answer added wlad timeline score: 1
Nov 11, 2020 at 11:35 history edited ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 11, 2020 at 11:29 history asked ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0