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Nov 21, 2020 at 17:33 history closed Max Alekseyev
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Desiderius Severus
Amir Sagiv
András Bátkai
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Nov 6, 2020 at 13:27 review Close votes
Nov 21, 2020 at 17:33
Nov 6, 2020 at 12:25 comment added Mark Wildon Of course. Thank you.
Nov 6, 2020 at 11:48 comment added Brendan McKay @MarkWildon I/E isn't needed. The choices with some item chosen $r$ times equals the number with all items chosen at most $r$ times minus the number with all items chosen at most $r-1$ times.
Nov 6, 2020 at 10:50 comment added Mark Wildon The generating function for the number $a_k$ of ways to choose $k$ items from $n$ with at most $r$ choices of each item is $(1+x+\cdots + x^r)^n$. Taking $r=1$ gives $(1+x)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}x^k$ and letting $r$ tend to infinity one gets $1/(1-x)^n = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \binom{-n}{k}(-x)^k = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \binom{k+n-1}{k}x^k$, the two formulae in the question. As far as I know there are no very convenient formulae for $r$ in between. And then one would need some form of inclusion/exclusion to count those choices where some item is chosen exactly $r$ times.
Nov 6, 2020 at 10:49 history edited Mark Wildon CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 6, 2020 at 10:28 history edited YCor
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Nov 6, 2020 at 10:26 history edited Jara M CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 6, 2020 at 10:18 review First posts
Nov 6, 2020 at 11:05
Nov 6, 2020 at 10:16 history asked Jara M CC BY-SA 4.0