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Nov 4, 2020 at 15:59 comment added Jimmy R. @DieterKadelka This is not $G_n$. I give a specific definition. No $U_n$ or any other pathology there.
Nov 4, 2020 at 15:43 comment added Dieter Kadelka You need at least additional assumptions. You get simple counterexamples if $G_n = \lambda \cdot (1-F(X_n)) + U_n$ with $(U_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ a sequence of independent (not iid) random variables with $\mathbb{E}U_n = 0$, but $|U_n|$ "large".
Nov 4, 2020 at 13:57 comment added Jimmy R. @DieterKadelka Yes, the model is Markovian. It only depends on the previous state. Plese use the notation that feels correct. Thank you.
Nov 4, 2020 at 13:25 comment added Dieter Kadelka The difference is that with $\mathcal{F}_n$ you get a Markovian model, I think. This simplifies investigations of convergence.
Nov 4, 2020 at 11:53 comment added Jimmy R. @DieterKadelka Yes, you also know $\mathcal F_n$. But since you only use $X_n$, does this make a difference? Sorry for asking, I am just not too familiar with these notions.
Nov 4, 2020 at 11:18 comment added Dieter Kadelka Is it correct that you only have $\mathbb{E}[G_n | X_n] = \ldots$ or do you have $\mathbb{E}[G_n | \mathcal{F}_n] = \ldots$ (same expression on the right side) with $\mathcal{F}_n = \sigma(X_0,G_0,X_1,G_1,\ldots,G_{n-1},X_n)$?
Nov 4, 2020 at 10:27 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed typo, added tag
Nov 4, 2020 at 10:24 history asked Jimmy R. CC BY-SA 4.0