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Oct 26, 2020 at 10:05 vote accept Simd
Oct 25, 2020 at 20:13 history became hot network question
Oct 25, 2020 at 20:04 comment added Gabe K From @Iosif Pinelis' answer, the sharp lower bound is $1/d$. Meanwhile, if they are i.i.d., the probability is $O(1)$, independent of $d$. If the coin-flips are three-wise independent (or $k$-wise independent), what happens to the lower bound as a function of $d$?
Oct 25, 2020 at 14:51 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 9
Oct 25, 2020 at 12:19 history edited Simd CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 25, 2020 at 12:18 review First posts
Oct 25, 2020 at 14:18
Oct 25, 2020 at 12:09 history asked Simd CC BY-SA 4.0