Hi all, thisThis is a really interesting question. But it only involves basic homotopy theory, not anything as subtle as the Jordan curve theorem.
Proof:Proof:
Let the paths be parameterized as $v(t)$, and $w(s)$, $t,s \in I := [0,1]$.
Assume the paths never intersect. Then the map $f : I \times I \to S^1$, given by $f(s,t) = \dfrac{v(t)-w(s)}{|v(t)-w(s)|}$, is well defined.
Think of $I \times I$ as being a homotopy between the paths,
$a_1(t) = \begin{cases} (0, 2t) & 0 \leq t \leq \frac{1}{2}\\ (2t-1, 1) & \frac{1}{2} < t \leq 1 \end{cases}$
and
$a_2(t) = \begin{cases} (2t, 0) & 0 \leq t \leq \frac{1}{2}\\ (1, 2t-1) & \frac{1}{2} < t \leq 1 \end{cases}$
i.e. the two boundary components of $I \times I$, as paths from $(0,0) \to (1,1)$.
Then, we see that $f(a_1(t))$ is a path that starts at the north pole of the circle, and ends at the south pole, and traverses clockwise, whereas $f(a_2(t))$ starts and ends the same, but traverses counterclockwise. Now $f(I \times I)$ provides a homotopy between these paths. However, however they are not homotopic as paths in the circle, this give. This gives a contradiction, and hence the paths must intersect.