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Oct 25, 2020 at 5:09 comment added Yaakov Baruch @AntoineLabelle Nice idea, but wouldn't work. For example the polynomial $P=(x_3-2x_2+x_1)(x_3-2x_2+x_1-1)$ would be $0$ on the pseudo-primes $p_1=2,\dots p_{i+1}=p_i+1+\lfloor \log(i)\rfloor$.
Oct 23, 2020 at 6:59 comment added Yaakov Baruch @Acccumulation : "are there $n,P$ such that..."
Oct 22, 2020 at 23:15 comment added Acccumulation It seems to me that there is a quantifier missing for $n$. Is it implied to be the universal one?
Oct 22, 2020 at 21:58 history became hot network question
Oct 22, 2020 at 20:53 comment added Will Sawin @FedorPetrov Yes, with c depending on $n$. In addition you can replace $\{1,\dots, N\}$ with another set of natural numbers as long as the density of admissible tuples in that subset doesn't go to $0$.
Oct 22, 2020 at 19:01 comment added Fedor Petrov @WillSawin what exactly is Maynard's result, that for at least $c\cdot N^n$ $n$-tuples $(a_1,\ldots,a_n)\in \{1,\ldots,N\}^n$ there exist infinitely many positive integers $x$ such that all $x+a_i$ are prime?
Oct 22, 2020 at 15:24 comment added Antoine Labelle $P$ takes finitely many values $a_1,\cdots,a_k$. Replacing $P$ by $(P-a_1)\cdots(P-a_k)$ we may assume that $P$ vanish on all tuples $(p_i, \cdots, p_{i+n-1})$. This would give a kind of recurrence relation for the primes. Then maybe we can derive a contradiction from the prime number theorem? I'm not sure.
Oct 22, 2020 at 15:13 comment added Will Sawin @FedorPetrov I was trying to deduce it from Maynard's theorem that a positive proportion of $n$-tuples of natural numbers from $1$ to $N$. I failed because I don't think Maynard rules out that the $n$-tuple could have additional primes between them, which would mess up the polynomials. Still I believe it's pretty likely there's an unconditional proof, maybe just a small modification of this argument.
Oct 22, 2020 at 15:11 comment added Yaakov Baruch @FedorPetrov -- ditto of my comment to Tony's answer!
Oct 22, 2020 at 15:07 vote accept Yaakov Baruch
Oct 22, 2020 at 14:58 answer added Tony Huynh timeline score: 12
Oct 22, 2020 at 14:58 comment added Fedor Petrov If such polynomial exists, it must depend on differences $p_{i+k}-p_{i+k-1}$. This is not hard to prove unconditionally. The standard conjectures like Hardy — Littlewood then imply that this is not possible. But the fact looks much weaker, possibly it has an unconditional proof.
Oct 22, 2020 at 14:16 history edited Yaakov Baruch CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 22, 2020 at 13:58 history asked Yaakov Baruch CC BY-SA 4.0