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Oct 27, 2020 at 0:10 comment added fedja @DavidESpeyer The difficulty is that the extreme case is still the uniform distribution on the 1-dimensional circle, which, even after your parameterization, is not a uniform distribution on the full space, i.e., we cannot just reduce the game to a single "Fourier coefficient" (let's just assume that all vectors have unit length, say, so the second trick with $f,g$ is not needed). But, of course, I'll be happy to be proved wrong in my skeptical view :-)
Oct 26, 2020 at 13:02 comment added David E Speyer It seems to me that computing the Peter-Weyl expansion of $|x_{ij}|$ is probably doable, at least for $SO(3)$. I am still working on making the rest of fedja's argument abstract enough for me to understand it, though.
Oct 26, 2020 at 13:01 comment added David E Speyer It seems to me that it is not hopeless to generalize this to higher dimensions. To make this fit in the comments, I'll do $k=3$. Let $a_i = r_i u_i$ and $b_i = s_i v_i$ where $u_i$ and $v_i$ are unit; let $g_i$ be the matrix in $SO(3)$ with columns $(u_i, v_i, u_i \times v_i)$ and let $\mu$ be the counting measure of the $g_i$, with $\mu(SO(3)) =1$. We want to bound $\int_{SO(3)} (r \mu) \ast (s \mu) |x_{12}|$ where the convolution is by $(g_1, g_2) \mapsto g_1^T g_2$ and $x_{ij}$ are the coordinates from $SO(3) \subset GL(3)$.
Oct 3, 2020 at 14:32 comment added fedja @IvanMeir I'm not sure what references you want: the only thing I use is the identity $\int(\mu*K)d\bar\nu=\sum_n \widehat K(n)\widehat\mu(n)\overline{\widehat\nu(n)}$. The only equality case is that of uniformly distributed on the circle directions and equal lengths, so no finite $n$ configuration can attain it. As to fixed angle, no, the proof doesn't generalize to that case because a) you have two options now, so it is no longer a pure convolution and b) even if you fix the orientation, the Fourier coefficients of the kernel are no longer nice enough to run the argument.
Oct 3, 2020 at 13:11 comment added Ivan Meir Also can you generalise your proof to the case where the orthogonality condition is replaced by $a_i^Tb_i=|a_i||b_i|\cos(\theta_i)$ so the $a_i$'s and $b_i$'s differ by fixed angles rather than $\pi/2$? I was wondering what might be the equality condition in this case for $k=2$?
Oct 3, 2020 at 10:45 comment added Ivan Meir Very interesting thank you! Do you have any references that might help one understand the proof. Also would you mind clarifying the case for equality in terms of the vectors $a_i$?
Oct 3, 2020 at 10:27 comment added Giorgio Metafune Thank you for the very nice proof. It is short, but not really "simple".
Oct 2, 2020 at 19:22 history answered fedja CC BY-SA 4.0