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Sep 30, 2020 at 11:40 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 1
Sep 30, 2020 at 9:20 comment added Alessandro Codenotti @YOTAL look at theorem 14.2 in Kechris Classical Descriptive Set Theory, in this theorem an analytic but not Borel subset of $\mathcal N^2$ is constructed, which answers your question as well since any analytic subset of $\mathcal N^2$ is the projection of a Borel subset of $\mathcal N^3$ by definition
Sep 30, 2020 at 7:59 history edited bof CC BY-SA 4.0
corrected title according to OP comment
Sep 30, 2020 at 6:20 comment added YOTAL @AlessandroCodenotti With all my gratitude, can you explain it more, or offer my some references?
Sep 30, 2020 at 6:18 history edited YOTAL CC BY-SA 4.0
edited tags; edited title
Sep 30, 2020 at 6:17 comment added YOTAL @AlexandreEremenko Right. My fault
Sep 30, 2020 at 6:15 comment added YOTAL @Arno Yes. Thank you for your answer. I mean a Borel set whose projection is not Borel
Sep 30, 2020 at 6:14 comment added YOTAL @A.Bailleul Yes. Sorry, it is my fault. I'll modify my question.
Sep 28, 2020 at 17:04 comment added Alessandro Codenotti As for how the notion of analytic sets was discovered that happened because Lebesgue wrote a paper in which he "proved" that the projection of a Borel set is Borel and Suslin noticed this mistake
Sep 28, 2020 at 17:01 comment added Alessandro Codenotti And the way a Borel set whose projection is not Borel is usually constructed is by constructing a $\mathbf{\Sigma}^1_1$-universal set, which then cannot be Borel, because self-dual pointclasses are easily shown not to have universal sets
Sep 28, 2020 at 14:00 comment added A. Bailleul I think you're looking for a Borel set whose projection is not Borel.
Sep 28, 2020 at 13:46 review Close votes
Oct 7, 2020 at 3:06
Sep 28, 2020 at 13:28 comment added Alexandre Eremenko The example you ask is trivial: take to horizontal planes, and consider the set which consists of arbitrary set (non-Borel) in one of them and entire second plane. The vertical projection of this set is a plane. The example which led to discovery of analytic set is different: it is a Borel set whose projection is not Borel.
Sep 28, 2020 at 12:57 comment added Arno As currently phrased, the answer is trivial[1]. Maybe you mean something else? [1]: Just take $\{(p,0^\omega) \mid p \text{ codes an ill-founded tree}\}$.
Sep 28, 2020 at 12:49 history asked YOTAL CC BY-SA 4.0