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Sep 29, 2020 at 8:53 history edited Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 28, 2020 at 21:52 vote accept Gautam
Sep 28, 2020 at 10:05 history edited Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 28, 2020 at 4:32 history became hot network question
Sep 28, 2020 at 0:27 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 20
Sep 27, 2020 at 22:17 comment added user347489 I guess the idea is that $p(x)=(f(x)-ig(x))(f(x)+ig(x))$? But how is finding this factorization easier than the proposed problem?
Sep 27, 2020 at 21:54 comment added Gautam Fedor, I didn't quite understand your comment. Are you suggesting we first factor $p(x)$ over the rationals and then use this factorization to obtain the desired decomposition? Can you please elaborate?
Sep 27, 2020 at 21:22 comment added Fedor Petrov This is about factorization in $\mathbb{Q}[i]$, which may be done efficiently.
Sep 27, 2020 at 20:53 history edited Gautam CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 27, 2020 at 20:53 comment added Gautam Yes, you may assume that $p(x)$ has a representation as a sum of squares of rational polynomials (though this may involve more than two squares!). The tricky part is finding a representation as a sum of two squares, and also doing it efficiently. I edited the question for clarity.
Sep 27, 2020 at 20:41 comment added Olivier Bégassat Is this always possible? How would you express the constant polynomial 3 as a sum of two squares of rational polynomials? EDIT: I guess your assumption is that $p$ is the SOS of rational polynomials?
Sep 27, 2020 at 20:31 history asked Gautam CC BY-SA 4.0