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Sep 26, 2020 at 12:15 comment added Stefan Kohl @Wojowu I am not aware of such result. -- But maybe someone else is?
Sep 25, 2020 at 21:57 comment added Wojowu Is it at the very least known, unconditionally, that $f_1(n)>f_2(n)$ infinitely often?
Sep 25, 2020 at 15:50 comment added Terry Tao A more careful quantification of the Lemke Oliver-Soundararajan results should be able to derive these bounds from a suitably quantitative and uniform form of the Hardy-Littlewood conjectures, but unconditional results are likely out of reach right now (except possibly in the function field model, in which we do now have some reasonably good form of the HL conjectures in some cases).
Sep 25, 2020 at 13:43 comment added Will Sawin I think even that very weak statement is not known and can't be derived from known results, but I'm not sure.
Sep 25, 2020 at 13:09 history asked Stefan Kohl CC BY-SA 4.0