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Sep 6, 2010 at 15:58 vote accept Martin Brandenburg
Sep 7, 2010 at 16:19
Sep 1, 2010 at 9:36 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly No, I agree. So my "answer" is really a comment.
Aug 31, 2010 at 17:38 comment added Martin Brandenburg See my edit in the question; I think we need more than $f=g$ set-theoretically in order to reduce to the affine case. Or do I miss something?
Aug 31, 2010 at 11:03 vote accept Martin Brandenburg
Aug 31, 2010 at 11:26
Aug 31, 2010 at 9:51 comment added Martin Brandenburg Ah I see: $(f^* i_* \mathcal{O}_Z)_x=0$ if and only if $\mathcal{O}_{X,x}$ is generated by $f^\#(I_{f(x)})$, if and only if $I_{f(x)} = \mathcal{O}_{Y,f(x)}$ since $f^\#$ is a local homomorphism! Thus we don't have to know $f^\#$.
Aug 31, 2010 at 9:31 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly Yes. Of course the $\mathcal{O}_X$-module structure of this thing is not enough to get the surjection $\mathcal{O}_X\to\mathcal{O}_Z$ but it does determine the support.
Aug 31, 2010 at 9:30 comment added Martin Brandenburg I see that $f^{-1}(Z)$ is the support of $f^{-1} i_* \mathcal{O}_Z$, but $f^* i_* \mathcal{O}_Z$ could have a smaller support and this depends on $f$.
Aug 31, 2010 at 9:24 comment added Martin Brandenburg Ah this is the argument I was lookin' for. You mean the pushforward of $\mathcal{O}_Z$ with $Z \to X$, right?
Aug 31, 2010 at 9:08 history answered Laurent Moret-Bailly CC BY-SA 2.5