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Sep 18, 2020 at 17:51 comment added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen No, because the distributive law is not provable from the axioms defining lattices
Sep 18, 2020 at 15:59 comment added Tim Your example is a counter-example to the Completeness Theorem?
Sep 18, 2020 at 15:27 comment added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen @Tim yes but anyway (a) and (b) seem to be equivalent by the Completeness Theorem.
Sep 18, 2020 at 11:02 comment added Tim Thanks. Is your example a counter-example to part (b) of the corollary?
Sep 18, 2020 at 1:55 history edited Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 18, 2020 at 1:49 history answered Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen CC BY-SA 4.0