It's not true in generalIt seems the name for this idea is equationally complete theory, see page 30 of Walter Taylor's Equational Logic survey.
ForNot every theory is like that: for example in the theory of lattices, somewhich is defined by axioms such as $$x\wedge (y\wedge z)=(x\wedge y)\wedge z$$ (the full list is at Wikipedia) some are distributive and some are not. So $$x\wedge (y\vee z)=x\wedge y\vee x\wedge z$$$$x\wedge (y\vee z)=(x\wedge y)\vee x(\wedge z)$$ is an identity that holds in some but not all lattices.